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Updated on
19 Feb 2020

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Question about English (US)

I'm making a double check.

According to British English the sentence "I have broken my leg and it hurts" is grammatically correct while "I broke my leg and it hurts" is not.

However, the second version of the sentence should be commonly used in the American variety, shouldn't it?

It should be the same reasoning behind the American "I just did it" versus the British "I've just done it", am I right?

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I'm making a double check.

According to British English the sentence "I have broken my leg and it hurts" is grammatically correct while "I broke my leg and it hurts" is not.

However, the second version of the sentence should be commonly used in the American variety, shouldn't it?

It should be the same reasoning behind the American "I just did it" versus the British "I've just done it", am I right?
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