Question
Updated on
9 Aug 2019
- Traditional Chinese (Taiwan)
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Japanese
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English (UK)
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German
Question about French (France)
Why isn't it "as" but "avais" in "t'avais autre chose à me dire"?
Why isn't it "as" but "avais" in "t'avais autre chose à me dire"?
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- French (France)
Cause it's in the past 😁 do you need more information?
- French (France)
Honestly I don't know why, but people often says that instead of "tu as autre chose à me dire ?" But "t'as autre chose à me dire ?" is also correct !😉
- French (France)
Both are correct and can be used in the same context, the nuance is tiny:
- "T'as..." = do you have -> person A asks person B if he has something he/she wanted to say; person A suppose now that person B does
- "T'avais..." = did you have -> person A asks person B if he had something in mind, in reference to some previous event
Here, "t'avais autre chose à me dire?" sounds like person A supposed person B to have something special he/she wanted to say; the conversation is ending and person B seems not to have said it, so person A tries to find out: "did you have something else to tell me?"
I hope it's clear x)
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Highly-rated answerer
- French (France)
it's not about past, it's about politeness.
it's called "imparfait d'atténuation".
it makes your request less immediate, therefore more pilote.
Highly-rated answerer
- Traditional Chinese (Taiwan)
@annetacafred @morganekslr Thank you :)
@clairekartoshka @projetsabotage Thank you for your detailed explanation!
@clairekartoshka @projetsabotage Thank you for your detailed explanation!
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